I mean, yes. But the question is, could the technology have been achieved without the liberalization that accompanied it? And can the technology exist without having a liberalizing effect?
Yarvin knows that this is a major question, and he’s written about it a lot. He believes that yes, both things are possible. I’m not persuaded because there should be some major limiting factor to stop the technology (including of the medical kind) from being all about extreme self-indulgence.

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